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Rom 3:9. Τί οὖν; what then?) He resumes the question with which he began at Rom 3:1.-προεχόμεθα;) have we any advantage as compared with the Gentiles?-οὐ πάντως[35]) the Jew would say πάντως: but Paul contradicts him. In the beginning of this passage, he speaks gently (for, in other places, where μηδαμῶς is used, οὐ πάντως cannot be substituted for it; and in this passage the expression, by no means [μηδαμῶς, had it been used], would take away the concession which he made to them at Rom 3:2); but he afterwards speaks with greater severity.-προῃτιασάμεθα) we have proved, before that I had mentioned the peculiar privilege of the Jews. Paul deals, in Chapters 1 and 2, as a stern Administrator [Procurator] of divine justice; but yet he was unwilling to use the singular number. By the plural number, he expresses the assent of his believing readers: πάντας, all the Jews [as well as] all the Greeks.-ὑφ ἁμαρτίαν) ὑπό denotes subjection, as if under the tyranny of sin.
[35] Beng. seems to translate “not altogether;” quite different from “in no wise.”-ED.