John Bengel Commentary - Romans 5:12 - 5:12

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John Bengel Commentary - Romans 5:12 - 5:12


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Rom 5:12. Διὰ τοῦτο, wherefore) This has regard to the whole of the preceding discussion, from which the apostle draws these conclusion concerning sin and righteousness, herein making not so much a digression as a regression. In imitation of Paul’s method, we must treat, in the first place, of actual sin, according to the first and following chapters, and then go back to the source in which sin originated. Paul does not speak altogether expressly of that which theologians call original sin; but, in truth the sin of Adam is sufficient to demonstrate man’s guilt; the very many, and most mournful fruits resulting from it, are sufficient for the demonstration of man’s habitual corruption. And man, in consequence of justification, at length looks back upon, and apprehends the doctrine concerning the origin of evil, and the other things connected with it. This second part, however, is in special connection with the first part of this chapter; comp. the much more, which reigns [Rom 5:17] on both sides [i.e. grace reigning and triumphing abundantly over both original sin and habitual corruption]; Rom 5:9, etc., 15, etc., for the very glorying of believers is exhibited; comp. Rom 5:11 [we glory, or Engl. vers. we joy] with Rom 5:21. The equality, too, of Jews and Gentiles, and consequently of all men, is herein included.-ὥσπερ, as) The Protasis, which the words and so continue; for it is not so also that follows [which would follow, if the apodosis began here]. The apodosis, from a change in the train of thoughts and words, is concealed in what follows.-ἀνθρώπου, man) Why is nothing said of the woman? Ans. 1. Adam had received the commandment. 2. He was not only the Head of his race, but also of Eve. 3. If Adam had not listened to the voice of his wife, not more than one would have sinned. Moreover, why is nothing said of Satan, who is the primary cause of sin? Ans. 1. Satan is opposed to God; Adam to Christ; moreover, here the economy of grace is described as it belongs to Christ, rather than as it belongs to God: therefore, God is once mentioned, Rom 5:15; Satan is never mentioned. 2. What has Satan to do with the grace of Christ?-ἠ ἁμαρτία-ὁ θάνατος, sin-death) These are two distinct evils, which Paul discusses successively at very great length.-εἰς τὸν κόσμον) into this world, which denotes the human race-εἰσῆλθε, entered) began to exist in the world; for it had not previously existed outside of the world.-καὶ διὰ, and by) Therefore, death could not have entered before sin.-καὶ οὕτως) and so, namely, by one man.-εἰς) unto [or upon] all, wholly.-διῆλθεν, passed) when sin once entered, which had not been in the world from the beginning.-ἐφʼ ᾧ) Ἐφʼ ᾧ with the verb ἥμαρτον has the same signification, as διὰ with the genitive, τῆς ἁμαρτίας. The meaning is, through the fact that, or in other words, inasmuch as all have sinned, comp. the ἐφʼ ᾧ, 2Co 5:4, and presently after, the other ἐπὶ, occurring in Rom 5:14.-πάντες) all without exception. The question is not about the particular sin of individuals; but in the sin of Adam all have sinned, as all died in the death of Christ for their salvation, 2Co 5:15. The Targum on Ruth, ch. 4, at the end: על On account of the counsel, which the serpent gave to Eve, all the inhabitants of the earth became subject to death, אתחייבו מותא, Targum on Eccl. ch. 7, at the end. The serpent and Eve made the day of death rush suddenly upon man and upon all the inhabitants of the earth. Sin precedes death; but the universality of death becomes known earlier than the universality of sin. This plan of arrangement is adopted with respect to the four clauses in this verse.