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NASB (UPDATED) TEXT: Joh_1:29-34
29The next day he saw Jesus coming to him and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! 30"This is He on behalf of whom I said, 'After me comes a Man who has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.' 31"I did not recognize Him, but so that He might be manifested to Israel, I came baptizing in water." 32John testified saying, "I have seen the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven, and He remained upon Him. 33"I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, 'He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.' 34"I myself have seen, and have testified that this is the Son of God."
Joh_1:29 "Behold, the Lamb of God" The feast of Passover was not far away (cf. Joh_2:13). Therefore, this probably refers to the Passover lamb symbolizing deliverance (i.e., salvation) from Egypt (cf. Exodus 12). John also places Jesus' death on the same day the Passover lamb was slain (i.e., "Preparation Day"). However, there have been other interpretations:
1. it may refer to the Suffering Servant of Isa_53:7
2. it may refer to the animal which was caught in the thicket in Gen_22:8; Gen_22:13.
3. it may refer to the daily offering in the Temple called "the continual" (cf. Exo_29:38-46).
Whatever the exact association, it was for a sacrificial purpose that the lamb was sent (cf. Mar_10:45).
This powerful metaphor for Jesus' sacrificial death is never used by Paul and only rarely by John (cf. Joh_1:29; Joh_1:36; also note Act_8:32 and 1Pe_1:19). The Greek term for a "small lamb" (small because it was only one year old, the normal age of sacrificial offerings). A different word is used by John in Joh_21:15 and twenty eight times in Revelation.
There is one further possibility for John the Baptist's imagery: intertestamental, apocalyptic literature where the "lamb" is a victorious warrior. The sacrificial aspect is still present, but the lamb as eschatological judge is pre-eminent (cf. Rev_5:5-6; Rev_5:12-13).
▣ "who takes away the sin of the world!" The phrase "takes away" meant to "take up and bear away." This verb is very similar to the concept of "the scapegoat" in Leviticus 16. The very fact that the world's sin is mentioned alludes to the universal nature of the lamb's task (cf. Joh_1:9; Joh_3:16; Joh_4:42; 1Ti_2:4; 1Ti_4:10; Tit_2:11; 2Pe_3:9; 1Jn_2:2; 1Jn_4:14). Notice that sin is singular, not plural. Jesus has dealt with the world's "sin" problem.
Joh_1:30 "for He existed before me" This is a repeat of Joh_1:15 for emphasis. This is another emphasis on the pre-existence and deity of the Messiah (cf. Joh_1:1; Joh_1:15; Joh_8:58; Joh_16:28; Joh_17:5; Joh_17:24; 2Co_8:9; Php_2:6-7; Col_1:17; Heb_1:3).
Joh_1:31 "so that He might be manifested to Israel" This is a common Johannine phrase (cf. Joh_2:11; Joh_3:21; Joh_7:4; Joh_9:3; Joh_17:6; Joh_21:14; 1Jn_1:2; 1Jn_2:19; 1Jn_2:28; 1Jn_3:2; 1Jn_3:5; 1Jn_3:8; 1Jn_4:9), but it is rare in the Synoptic Gospels, only appearing in Mar_4:22. It is a play on the Hebraic term "to know," which speaks of personal fellowship with someone more than facts about someone. The purpose of John's baptism was twofold: (1) to prepare the people and (2) to reveal the Messiah.
This verb "manifest" (phaneroô) seems to replace "reveal" (apokaluptô) in John's writing. Jesus clearly brings to light/sight the person and message of God!
Joh_1:32-33 This is a threefold emphasis of the fact that John saw the Spirit coming and remaining on Jesus.
Joh_1:32 "the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven" This was Isaiah's (chapters 40-66) way to recognize the Messiah (cf. Isa_42:1; Isa_59:21; Isa_61:1). This does not mean to imply that Jesus did not have the Spirit before this time. It was a symbol of God's special choice and equipping. It was not primarily for Jesus, but for John the Baptist!
The Jews had a worldview of two ages (see Special Topic at 1Jn_2:17), the current evil age and an age of righteousness to come. The new age was called the age of the Spirit. This vision would have said to John the Baptist (1) this one is the Messiah and (2) the new age has dawned.
▣ "dove" This was used
1. as a rabbinical symbol for Israel (i.e., Hos_7:11)
2. as an allusion to the Spirit as a female bird "brooding" over creation in Gen_1:2 in the Targums
3. in Philo a symbol of wisdom
4. as a metaphor of the manner in which the Spirit descended (the Spirit is not a bird)
▣ "remained" See hyperlink at 1Jn_2:10.
Joh_1:33 "I did not recognize Him" This implies that John the Baptist did not know Jesus as the Messiah, not that he did not know Him at all. As relatives, surely they had met at family or religious gatherings over the years.
▣ "He who sent me to baptize in water said to me" God spoke to John as He did to other OT prophets. John was to recognize the Messiah by these specific acts which would occur at His baptism.
John's baptism suggested a religious authority. The official delegation from Jerusalem (cf. Joh_1:19-28) wanted to know the source of this authority. John the Baptist attributes that authority to Jesus. Jesus' Spirit baptism is superior to John's water baptism. Jesus' own baptism in water will become a sign of the baptism of the Spirit, the incorporation into the new age!
▣ "this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit" From 1Co_12:13 it seems that this concept relates to the initial inclusion of a person into the family of God. The Spirit convicts of sin, woos to Christ, baptizes into Christ, and forms Christ in the new believer (cf. Joh_16:8-13). See hyperlink at 1Jn_2:20.
Joh_1:34 "I myself have seen, and have testified" These are both perfect active indicative which implies past action brought to completion and then continuing. This is very similar to 1Jn_1:1-4.
▣ "that this is the Son of God" One wonders if the Greek word paîs, which is normally translated "servant," reflecting the Hebrew( 'ebed , BDB 712) in the LXX, could be the background to "Son." If so, then Isaiah 53 (as is "the lamb" of God in Joh_1:29) is the OT allusion instead of Dan_7:13. Jesus is both the Son and Servant! He will transform believers into "a child," not "a servant"!
This same title is used by Nathanael in Joh_1:49. It is also used by Satan in Mat_4:3. There is an interesting Greek manuscript variant found in MSS P5 and à cf8 i*, which has "the Chosen One of God" instead of "the Son of God" (the UBS4 gives "Son of God" a "B" rating). The phrase "Son of God" is common in John. But, if one follows the rational tenets of textual criticism, then the most awkward and unusual wording is probably original, then there is at least a possibility of the alternate translation even though the manuscript witness is limited. Gordon Fee discusses this textual variant in his article "The Textual Criticism of the New Testament" pp. 419-433, in the introductory volume to The Expositor's Bible Commentary:
"In Joh_1:34, did John the Baptist say, 'This is the Son of God' (KJV, RSV) or 'This is God's Chosen One' (NEB, JB)? The MS evidence is divided, even among the early text-types. 'Son' is found in the key Alexandrian witnesses (P66, P75, B, C, L copbo) as well as in several OL (aur, c, flg) and the later Syriac witnesses, while 'chosen One' is supported by the Alexandrian P5, à , copsa as well as the OL MSS a,b,e,ff2, and the Old Syriac.
"The question must finally be decided on internal grounds. As to transcriptional probability, one thing is clear: the variant is intentional, not accidental (cf. Bart D. Ehrman's The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, pp. 69-70). But did a second century scribe alter the text to support a kind of adoptionist Christology, or did an orthodox scribe sense the possibility that the designation 'Chosen One' might be used to support adoptionism, and so alter it for orthodox reasons? In terms of probabilities, the latter seems far more likely, especially since 'the Son' is not changed elsewhere in the Gospel to fit adoptionist views.
"But the final decision must involve exegesis. Since what John the Baptist said was almost certainly intended to be messianic and not a statement of Christian theology, the question is whether it reflects the messianism of such a passage as Psa_2:7 or that of Isa_42:1. In light of the suffering, or paschal, lamb motif of Joh_1:29, it is surely arguable that 'Chosen One' fits the context of the Gospel" (pp. 431-432).