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NASB (UPDATED) TEXT: Mat_19:3-9
3Some Pharisees came to Jesus, testing Him and asking, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?" 4And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, 5and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? 6So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." 7They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce and send her away?" 8He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. 9And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Mat_19:3 For a full discussion of the origin and theology of the Pharisees see the Special Topic at Mat_22:15.
▣ "testing Him" This term (peirazô) had a negative connotation of "testing with a view toward destruction." See Special Topic at Mat_4:1. This was not a theological discussion in a neutral setting!
NASB "for any reason at all"
NKJV "for any reason"
NRSV "for any cause"
TEV "for whatever reason he wishes"
NJB "on any pretext whatever"
In Mar_10:2 the question was about divorce, but here the question concerned the grounds for divorce. The conservative rabbinical school of Shammai picked up on the phrase "some indecency" from Deu_24:1, while the liberal rabbinical school of Hillel picked up on the phrase "she finds no favor." So the first school said the grounds were only for adultery or some other forbidden sexual act; the second said for any cause. Later, Rabbi Akiba, of the school of Hillel, even said that one could divorce his wife if he found someone prettier!
The Pharisees are asking Jesus a question, not for information but to hurt Him
1. with some portion of His followers (factions within Judaism)
2. with Herod Antipas (John the Baptist condemned Herod's divorce and remarriage)
Mat_19:4 "Have you not read" Jesus expected that Jewish people had read God's book (cf. Mat_12:3; Mat_19:4; Mat_21:16; Mat_22:31). Knowledge of Scripture was foundational for godly living. Jesus expects modern believers to " have read" it also! The Jewish traditions twisted and annulled Scripture, as does modern denominational traditions, usually quoting one text or part of a text out of context and ignoring all other parallel passages!
▣ "created" This participle (ktisas) is in the uncial MS B, but the verb "made" (poiçsas) is in MSS à , C, D, L, W, Z. It follows the Septuagint of Gen_1:27. However, the UBS4 thinks the first option is original (i.e., a "B" rating, meaning " almost certain").
▣ "from the beginning" This quote is from Gen_1:27; Gen_5:2 of God's creation of both men and women. Marriage is God's idea and it is to be monogamous (cf. Gen_2:23-24) and permanent (cf. Mat_19:6).
Mat_19:5 "for this reason. . .leave his father and mother" This is a quote from Gen_2:24. Notice both parents are mentioned, but also the radical break with one's nuclear family that marriage demanded. In the ancient world families lived with multiple generations in one house. The priority and independence of each generation is affirmed.
▣ "the two shall become one flesh" The singular form but with a plural sense is also found in Gen_2:24, Deu_6:4, and Eze_27:17. Love merges individuals!
Mat_19:6 "what therefore God has joined together" This is an aorist active indicative, which expressed completed action. By stating "what," not "who," the institution of marriage was emphasized. The term "joined together" meant "yoked together."
Mat_19:7 "Moses commanded to give her a certificate of divorce and send her away" This is from Deu_24:1-4. Jesus said that Moses did it, not because God wanted it, but because of the hardness of the peoples'hearts. Moses had compassion for the wife's societal plight. This certificate (1) required several days, (2) required legal help, (3) may have required return of the dowry, and (4) implied remarriage.
What really bothers me about Jesus' rejection of Moses'words is how do I know what else is contained in OT Scripture that God rejects. I would never have known this unless Jesus expressly stated it here. All my life I have revered Scripture, used it to guide my life and actions, but now Jesus says part of it was never God's will!! This gives me pause and forces me to cling to the NT and not the OT. The OT must be viewed through its interpretation by Jesus and His inspired Apostles! Jesus is Lord of Scripture (cf. Mat_5:17-48)!
Mat_19:9
NASB "except for immorality"
NKJV "except for sexual immorality"
NRSV "except for unchastity"
TEV "other than her unfaithfulness"
JB" I am not speaking of fornication"
NJB "I am not speaking of an illicit marriage"
The Greek term is porneia, which comes into English as "pornography." This could have referred to fornication (pre-marital sexual activity), adultery (extra-marital sexual activity), or other inappropriate sexual acts such as bestiality and homosexuality (forbidden sexual activity).
▣ "and marries another woman" Only Jewish men had the right of divorce during this period of time. In Mark and Luke, who were writing to a Gentile audience, women are also addressed (cf. Mar_10:12).
▣ "commits adultery" This is present passive (deponent) indicative (cf. Mar_10:11-12). There are some textual variations in this verse probably caused by scribes referring to Mat_5:32. The verb tenses from Mat_5:32 shed light on this passage. In Mat_5:32 the translation should be "causes her to become an adulteress." This passive voice has also been found in Mat_19:9 in the Greek manuscripts B and C*. This possibly referred to the social stigma which was put on the divorced woman by her Jewish culture, which designated her as an adulteress by the fact that she was put away.
At this point F. F. Bruce's comment on this text in his book Answers to Questions, p. 55, is relevant to the use of this text today:
"He was not giving His disciples occasion for instituting a new legalism on the basis of His ruling, as some of them have tried to do. What He said about the Sabbath law could be said of the marriage law: it was made for human beings, and not vice versa."
See Dr. Utley's audio tapes on "divorce" online at hyperlink in the "Difficult and Controversial Texts" section.